51Question
A client is found outdoors after a cold night with shivering absent, confusion and a very low core temperature. Which interventions are appropriate?
Select all that apply.
- Remove wet clothing and insulate with blankets
- Handle the client gently and avoid rough movement
- Rub the arms and legs vigorously to restore circulation
- Place the client in a hot bath
- Provide continuous cardiac monitoring and warmed intravenous fluids
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and E.
- A – Remove wet clothing and insulate with blankets
- B – Handle the client gently and avoid rough movement
- E – Provide continuous cardiac monitoring and warmed intravenous fluids
Topic: hypothermia
In moderate to severe hypothermia the heart is irritable, so the client is moved gently, insulated from the cold and rewarmed with warmed fluids and monitored for dysrhythmias.
Why the others are wrong
- C – Vigorous rubbing can trigger ventricular fibrillation and tissue injury.
- D – Rapid external heat causes peripheral vasodilation and can drop core temperature or blood pressure (rewarming shock).
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
52Question
A marathon runner collapses on a hot day, is confused, and has hot, flushed skin and a rectal temperature of 41.5 degrees C (106.7 degrees F). Which action is the priority?
- Give oral acetaminophen and wait for the temperature to fall
- Begin rapid active cooling immediately, such as cold water immersion
- Offer oral fluids and rest in a shaded area
- Wait for laboratory results before cooling
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Begin rapid active cooling immediately, such as cold water immersion
Topic: heat stroke
Exertional heat stroke is a medical emergency with central nervous system dysfunction. Outcome depends on how fast core temperature is lowered, so cooling starts before transport and tests.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Acetaminophen is ineffective in heat stroke because the set point is not raised.
- C – A confused client may aspirate, and oral fluids cannot cool fast enough.
- D – Delay worsens organ injury; cooling should not wait for results.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
53Question
Lightning strikes a group of five people at a golf course. Rescuers arrive. Which person should be attended to first?
- A person who is awake, burned on the arm and crying
- A person who is confused and cannot recall the event but is breathing normally
- A person with a fracture of the lower leg who is conscious
- A person who is not breathing and has no pulse
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. A person who is not breathing and has no pulse
Topic: lightning injury triage
In lightning injuries, reverse triage applies: people in cardiac or respiratory arrest are treated first because they are often young and healthy and can respond to prompt resuscitation. Others who are conscious and breathing can wait.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Conscious and crying means airway, breathing and circulation are present.
- B – Confusion is concerning but this person is breathing and perfusing.
- C – A fracture is not immediately life-threatening in someone who is conscious.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
54Question
A home health nurse visits a woman with Alzheimer's disease whose 78-year-old husband is her only caregiver. He looks exhausted, has lost weight and says, 'I have not left the house in months, but I am fine. She needs me.' Which action by the nurse is best?
- Accept his statement and keep the visit focused on his wife's care.
- Ask what help he has, and discuss respite care and a caregiver support group.
- Recommend that he move his wife to a long-term care facility now.
- Tell him that he will become ill himself unless he takes better care of himself.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Ask what help he has, and discuss respite care and a caregiver support group.
Topic: caregiver role strain
He shows caregiver role strain while denying his own needs. The family is the unit of care: the nurse assesses his support system and offers resources such as respite care that let him continue in the role he values.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Ignoring the cues leaves the caregiver, and so the client, at risk.
- C – Placement is a family decision; proposing it first disregards his wishes and skips less drastic help.
- D – A warning without practical help adds guilt and no solution.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
55Question
The wife of a client with alcohol use disorder tells the nurse that she telephones his employer to say he is ill when he is hung over, has paid his fines, and thinks, 'If I were a better wife he would not need to drink.' Which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate?
- Suggest that she search the house for alcohol, pour it out and keep a daily record of how much he drinks.
- Help her see how covering for him protects him from the results of his drinking, and give her information about a support group for families.
- Advise her that the only effective step is to leave him until he stops drinking.
- Reassure her that she is doing everything she can to hold the family together.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Help her see how covering for him protects him from the results of his drinking, and give her information about a support group for families.
Topic: codependency and enabling
The wife shows codependent, enabling behavior: she takes responsibility for the drinking and removes its consequences, which makes it easier for the drinking to continue. The nurse helps her recognize the pattern, understand that she neither causes nor controls another person's substance use, and turn toward her own needs with the help of a family support group.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Searching and monitoring are attempts to control the partner's drinking, which deepens the codependent pattern.
- C – Giving directive personal advice removes her own decision making and is not the nurse's role.
- D – Reassurance reinforces the enabling behavior and her belief that the drinking is hers to manage.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
56Question
A mother is in the hospital for cancer treatment. Her husband tells the nurse that their 5-year-old son said, 'Mommy got sick because I shouted at her and was bad.' Which advice should the nurse give the father?
- 'Tell him his mother has gone away on a trip so that he does not worry.'
- 'Explain to him in detail how the cancer developed, how the treatment works and what the outlook is.'
- 'Tell him simply and clearly that nothing he said, did or thought made her sick, and give him a short, honest explanation of her illness.'
- 'He is too young to understand, so it is best not to bring the subject up unless he does.'
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. 'Tell him simply and clearly that nothing he said, did or thought made her sick, and give him a short, honest explanation of her illness.'
Topic: child's response to parental illness by age
Preschool children think magically and egocentrically, so they commonly believe that their own thoughts or misbehavior caused a parent's illness. They need a direct statement that they are not to blame, a brief truthful explanation in concrete words, and reassurance about who will take care of them. Deception and silence leave the guilt in place and damage trust; long abstract explanations are beyond their stage of thinking.
Why the others are wrong
- A – A false story damages trust when the truth emerges and leaves the child's guilt untouched.
- B – Detailed explanations of disease, treatment and prognosis exceed a preschooler's concrete thinking and may frighten him.
- D – The child has already shown that he is thinking about it and blaming himself; silence lets the belief grow.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
57Question
A client fell in the bathroom and was found by the nurse, who has assisted the client and notified the provider. The nurse now prepares the facility incident report. Which items belong in the report?
Select all that apply.
- The date, time and location where the client was found
- An objective description of what the nurse saw, heard and did
- The nurse's opinion about which staff member was at fault
- The names of any witnesses
- A conclusion about the cause of the fall that the nurse did not observe
- The client's condition after the fall and the time the provider was notified
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B, D and F.
- A – The date, time and location where the client was found
- B – An objective description of what the nurse saw, heard and did
- D – The names of any witnesses
- F – The client's condition after the fall and the time the provider was notified
Topic: content of an incident report
An incident report is a factual, objective account used for quality and risk review. It records when and where the event occurred, what was observed and done, who witnessed it, the client's condition and who was notified. It does not include blame, opinion or speculation.
Why the others are wrong
- C – Blame is an opinion; the report states facts and leaves review of fault to the quality process.
- E – A cause the nurse did not witness is speculation and could mislead the later review.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
58Question
A nurse finds a client sitting on the floor next to the bed. The client is uninjured and the provider has been notified. Which entry in the medical record is most appropriate?
- Fall caused by understaffing on nights; incident report completed and sent to risk management.
- Client fell because the aide did not answer the call light quickly enough; reported to the supervisor.
- Incident report number filed for the fall; see that report for complete details of what occurred.
- Found sitting on floor beside bed at 0215. States slid from bed. Denies pain. Vital signs stable. Provider notified at 0225.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Found sitting on floor beside bed at 0215. States slid from bed. Denies pain. Vital signs stable. Provider notified at 0225.
The medical record contains objective facts: what was found, what the client said, assessment findings, and who was notified and when. It does not mention the incident report or contain blame or speculation, because the incident report is an administrative document kept separate from the record.
Why the others are wrong
- A – It blames staffing, a conclusion not observed, and it mentions the incident report; both belong outside the chart.
- B – It assigns fault to a team member, which is an opinion, not an assessment or care entry.
- C – Referring to the incident report in the record can expose a document meant to remain separate and gives no clinical facts.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
59Question
Before giving a scheduled dose, a nurse sees that the pharmacy label lists a different strength than the one ordered. The nurse obtains the correct dose from pharmacy and gives it, and the client is not affected. What should the nurse do about the discrepancy?
- Report it as a near miss in the event reporting system so the cause can be examined
- Skip reporting, because no error reached the client
- Mention it to the pharmacist verbally and avoid a written report so the technician is not disciplined
- Write the discrepancy only in the client's chart
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Report it as a near miss in the event reporting system so the cause can be examined
Topic: reporting a near miss
A near miss is an event that could have caused harm but was caught before reaching the client. Reporting near misses reveals system weaknesses, such as labeling errors, so they can be corrected before someone is harmed.
Why the others are wrong
- B – No harm occurred, but the same labeling problem could harm the next client; near misses should be reported.
- C – A verbal remark does not enter the quality system; reporting is meant to improve the process, not punish an individual.
- D – The chart records client care, not system problems; the event reporting system is the correct channel.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
60Question
A client with acute kidney injury has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which electrocardiogram change should the nurse expect to observe?
- Flattened T waves
- Shortened PR interval
- Tall, peaked T waves
- Prominent U waves
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Tall, peaked T waves
Topic: Hyperkalemia ECG changes
Severe hyperkalemia (K+ 6.8 mEq/L) depolarizes myocardial cells, producing characteristic tall, peaked T waves on the ECG, often the earliest sign before QRS widening or arrhythmias develop.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Flattened T waves indicate low potassium, not high.
- B – Shortened PR interval is not associated with hyperkalemia.
- D – Prominent U waves are a sign of hypokalemia.
Remember: Hyperkalemia shows tall, peaked T waves.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
61Question
A client with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is lethargic and has shallow respirations. Which arterial blood gas (ABG) result should the nurse expect?
- pH 7.32, PaCO2 38 mmHg, HCO3 18 mEq/L
- pH 7.49, PaCO2 40 mmHg, HCO3 30 mEq/L
- pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 22 mEq/L
- pH 7.31, PaCO2 52 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. pH 7.31, PaCO2 52 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
Topic: Arterial blood gas interpretation, respiratory acidosis
During an acute COPD flare the patient retains CO₂, producing a primary respiratory acidosis; compensation has not yet raised bicarbonate, so the ABG shows low pH, elevated PaCO₂, and near‑normal HCO₃⁻.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Low pH with low PaCO₂ indicates metabolic acidosis, not COPD retention.
- B – pH alkalosis with normal PaCO₂ and high HCO₃⁻ reflects metabolic alkalosis, unrelated.
- C – Elevated pH and low PaCO₂ describe respiratory alkalosis, opposite of expected.
Remember: COPD flare = CO₂ retention → acidic, high CO₂, normal bicarb.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
62Question
A nurse is teaching a client with type 2 diabetes about a scheduled hemoglobin A1c test. Which statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of this laboratory test?
- It determines if my kidneys are filtering sugar properly.
- It detects the amount of sugar in my urine over a week.
- It measures my blood sugar levels right at this moment.
- It shows my average blood sugar over the past three months.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. It shows my average blood sugar over the past three months.
Topic: Hemoglobin A1c meaning
Hemoglobin A1c reflects the percentage of glycated hemoglobin, indicating average plasma glucose over the previous 8–12 weeks, thus providing a three‑month glycemic trend. It is used to assess diabetes control.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Hemoglobin A1c does not evaluate kidney filtration.
- B – Urine glucose testing does not reflect long‑term blood glucose.
- C – A1c is not a point‑of‑care glucose measurement.
Remember: A1c shows three‑month average blood sugar.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
63Question
A 17-year-old client is starting a combined oral contraceptive. Which points should the nurse include in the teaching?
Select all that apply.
- "After the first month on the pill, condoms are no longer needed."
- "The pill does not protect against sexually transmitted infections, so use a condom every time."
- "Use an oil-based lubricant with latex condoms to prevent breakage."
- "Report severe leg pain, chest pain, severe headache or vision changes right away."
- "Stop the pill for a few months each year to let the body rest."
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: B and D.
- B – "The pill does not protect against sexually transmitted infections, so use a condom every time."
- D – "Report severe leg pain, chest pain, severe headache or vision changes right away."
Topic: contraception and sexual health teaching
Hormonal contraception prevents pregnancy but gives no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so condoms are still advised. Combined pills contain estrogen, which raises the risk of blood clots; severe leg pain, chest pain, severe headache and visual changes are the warning signs to report immediately.
Why the others are wrong
- A – The pill never protects against infection, however long it has been taken.
- C – Oil-based lubricants damage latex and cause condoms to break; water-based lubricant is used.
- E – Planned breaks from the pill have no health benefit and leave the client unprotected against pregnancy.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
64Question
A nurse is teaching a construction worker about protecting the skin from the sun. Which statement by the client shows a need for further teaching?
- "A few tanning-bed sessions before summer will give me a base tan that protects me."
- "I will put broad-spectrum sunscreen on again every couple of hours and after heavy sweating."
- "I will wear a wide-brimmed hat and a long-sleeved shirt on the site."
- "I still need sunscreen on cloudy days."
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. "A few tanning-bed sessions before summer will give me a base tan that protects me."
Topic: sun exposure
A tan is a sign of skin injury from ultraviolet radiation, and tanning beds add ultraviolet exposure and raise the risk of skin cancer; a 'base tan' gives almost no protection. Protective clothing, a hat, shade and broad-spectrum sunscreen that is reapplied are the taught measures, and ultraviolet rays pass through cloud.
Why the others are wrong
- B – This is correct: sunscreen wears off and must be reapplied, especially after sweating.
- C – This is correct: clothing and a brimmed hat are effective physical barriers.
- D – This is correct: most ultraviolet radiation passes through cloud.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
65Question
A client with hypertension says, "I have researched gym fees, signed up for a trial membership and will start going next week." According to the Transtheoretical Model, which stage is the client in?
- Contemplation
- Precontemplation
- Maintenance
- Preparation
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Preparation
Topic: Transtheoretical Model stages of change
In the preparation stage the person intends to act soon, usually within the next month, and has begun taking small steps such as researching options or signing up. This client has done both.
Why the others are wrong
- A – In contemplation the client is thinking about change but has no immediate plan or firm steps.
- B – In precontemplation the client does not intend to change in the near future.
- C – Maintenance means the new behavior has been sustained for months.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
66Question
Which findings indicate that a client on mechanical ventilation is ready to be evaluated for a spontaneous breathing trial?
Select all that apply.
- The condition that caused respiratory failure is improving
- Hemodynamics are stable without increasing vasopressor requirements
- Oxygenation is adequate on modest oxygen and PEEP settings
- The client is deeply sedated and does not respond
- The vasopressor dose is rising
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and C.
- A – The condition that caused respiratory failure is improving
- B – Hemodynamics are stable without increasing vasopressor requirements
- C – Oxygenation is adequate on modest oxygen and PEEP settings
Topic: weaning readiness
Readiness requires reversal of the cause, stable perfusion, adequate oxygenation on low support, and enough alertness and drive to breathe.
Why the others are wrong
- D – A deeply sedated client cannot generate effective spontaneous breathing or protect the airway.
- E – A rising vasopressor requirement signals instability, not readiness.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
67Question
Which measures are part of a ventilator-associated event prevention bundle?
Select all that apply.
- Raise the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees unless contraindicated
- Perform a daily sedation interruption and spontaneous breathing trial assessment
- Provide oral care according to protocol
- Change the ventilator circuit on a fixed daily schedule
- Instill saline routinely before each suctioning
- Maintain endotracheal cuff pressure in the recommended range
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B, C and F.
- A – Raise the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees unless contraindicated
- B – Perform a daily sedation interruption and spontaneous breathing trial assessment
- C – Provide oral care according to protocol
- F – Maintain endotracheal cuff pressure in the recommended range
Topic: ventilator-associated events
Bundles reduce aspiration and ventilator days: head elevation, sedation interruption with readiness testing, oral care, and appropriate cuff pressure. Routine circuit changes and routine saline instillation are not recommended.
Why the others are wrong
- D – Circuit changes should be done when soiled or damaged, not on a fixed schedule.
- E – Routine saline instillation is not supported and may spread bacteria.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
68Question
A client on mechanical ventilation, previously calm, is now agitated, pulling at the endotracheal tube, with fluctuating attention. A delirium screening tool is positive. What should the nurse do first?
- Increase the benzodiazepine infusion
- Apply wrist restraints
- Assess for reversible causes such as pain, hypoxemia, withdrawal and drug effects, and notify the provider
- Reorient the client and document, with no further action
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Assess for reversible causes such as pain, hypoxemia, withdrawal and drug effects, and notify the provider
Topic: delirium in the ICU
Delirium in an intubated client is a sign of an underlying problem and raises mortality. The nurse looks for treatable causes and uses non-drug measures before escalating sedation.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Benzodiazepines are deliriogenic and mask a treatable cause.
- B – Restraints increase agitation and risk of injury and should be a last resort.
- D – Reorientation alone fails to find a possible hypoxic or painful cause.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
69Question
A client presents 90 minutes after an intentional large acetaminophen ingestion and has no symptoms. Which statements should the nurse expect or be prepared to act on?
Select all that apply.
- The client may feel well while liver injury is developing
- A serum acetaminophen level is drawn at the time directed by the poison center or treatment nomogram
- Activated charcoal may be considered if given early and the airway is protected
- The antidote is given only after jaundice appears
- Treatment can wait until symptoms appear
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and C.
- A – The client may feel well while liver injury is developing
- B – A serum acetaminophen level is drawn at the time directed by the poison center or treatment nomogram
- C – Activated charcoal may be considered if given early and the airway is protected
Topic: acetaminophen overdose
Early acetaminophen overdose is silent, and the antidote acetylcysteine works best when started early, guided by timed levels. Charcoal is considered only soon after ingestion and when the airway is protected.
Why the others are wrong
- D – Waiting for jaundice delays the antidote beyond its best window.
- E – Delaying treatment until symptoms appear loses the period when the antidote works best.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
70Question
A client who has taken an opioid is brought in with slow respirations, and after naloxone is given becomes alert. Which nursing actions are appropriate?
Select all that apply.
- Monitor closely for return of sedation because naloxone may wear off before the opioid
- Keep airway and ventilation equipment at the bedside
- Expect that the client may develop withdrawal symptoms
- Discharge after 15 minutes if the client is awake
- Give a second full dose to ensure the client stays fully alert
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and C.
- A – Monitor closely for return of sedation because naloxone may wear off before the opioid
- B – Keep airway and ventilation equipment at the bedside
- C – Expect that the client may develop withdrawal symptoms
Topic: opioid reversal
Naloxone's effect can be shorter than that of many opioids, so resedation and respiratory depression can return. The goal is adequate breathing, and withdrawal can follow reversal.
Why the others are wrong
- D – Early discharge risks respiratory arrest when naloxone wears off.
- E – The aim is adequate breathing; large doses can cause severe withdrawal and agitation.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
71Question
A client who ingested a large amount of amitriptyline has a widened QRS complex on the monitor and a new seizure. Which medication should the nurse anticipate?
- Sodium bicarbonate
- Flumazenil
- Physostigmine
- Amiodarone
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Sodium bicarbonate
Topic: tricyclic antidepressant overdose
In tricyclic antidepressant toxicity, sodium channel blockade widens the QRS and raises the risk of ventricular dysrhythmias and seizures; sodium bicarbonate is given for QRS widening and dysrhythmias.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Flumazenil is the benzodiazepine reversal agent and can provoke seizures in tricyclic overdose.
- C – Physostigmine is avoided in tricyclic toxicity because of seizure and dysrhythmia risk.
- D – Antiarrhythmics that prolong conduction can worsen tricyclic cardiotoxicity.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
72Question
A nurse in an eye clinic is returning telephone messages. Which caller should the nurse contact first?
- A client whose vision has become gradually cloudier over the past year
- A client who sees a dark curtain across one eye with new flashes of light
- A client who has had a tender red lump on the eyelid for the past three days
- A client whose eyes itch and water each spring
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. A client who sees a dark curtain across one eye with new flashes of light
Topic: urgent eye symptoms
A curtain-like shadow with flashes of light is the classic presentation of retinal detachment. Sight can be lost permanently unless the retina is reattached promptly, so a sudden change in vision outranks chronic or self-limiting complaints.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Slow, progressive blurring suggests a chronic process such as cataract and can be scheduled.
- C – A stye is painful but not sight-threatening and can be managed with warm compresses.
- D – Seasonal allergic symptoms are bothersome but not urgent.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
73Question
A nurse in an urgent care clinic is triaging four clients. Which client has a first-level priority need?
- A client asking for diet counseling after a recent diagnosis
- A client with three days of mild diarrhea who is drinking fluids
- A client with wheezing who can speak only two or three words per breath
- A client with a sprained ankle who rates pain 6 out of 10
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. A client with wheezing who can speak only two or three words per breath
Topic: first-level priority in triage
First-level priorities are life-threatening problems involving airway, breathing and circulation. A client with wheezing who cannot complete sentences has severe respiratory distress and is seen first.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Teaching is a lower-level need.
- B – A stable, hydrated client can wait.
- D – Pain is important but is a second-level need compared with breathing.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
74Question
A nurse is reviewing intake notes for clients waiting in a clinic. Which clients should be seen urgently?
Select all that apply.
- A client with well-controlled hypertension here for a prescription refill
- A client with facial drooping and slurred speech that began 20 minutes ago
- A client who has had occasional trouble falling asleep for several weeks
- A client who describes a sudden headache as the worst of their life
- A client who has itchy eyes and sneezing every spring
- A client with a one-day-old runny nose and no fever
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: B and D.
- B – A client with facial drooping and slurred speech that began 20 minutes ago
- D – A client who describes a sudden headache as the worst of their life
Topic: urgent findings in a waiting room
Facial droop with slurred speech suggests stroke, and a sudden worst-ever headache suggests a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Both are time-critical neurological emergencies. Stable chronic or mild self-limiting problems do not need urgent evaluation.
Why the others are wrong
- A – A stable chronic condition without new symptoms can wait.
- C – A long-standing mild complaint can be handled in routine order.
- E – Seasonal allergy symptoms are not urgent.
- F – A mild, brief cold is not time-sensitive.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
75Question
A Muslim client with type 2 diabetes who takes metformin and a basal insulin dose says, 'Ramadan starts next week, and I intend to fast from dawn to sunset.' Which action by the nurse is best?
- Tell the client that people with diabetes are not allowed to fast.
- Advise the client to omit all diabetes medicines on fasting days.
- Arrange for the client and the provider to plan medication timing, glucose monitoring and when the fast must be broken.
- Advise the client not to check blood glucose during the day, so that the fast is kept.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Arrange for the client and the provider to plan medication timing, glucose monitoring and when the fast must be broken.
Topic: religious fasting and diabetes care
Culturally competent care respects the religious practice and makes it as safe as possible. A plan made before the fast adjusts the timing and doses of medicines, sets how often to check glucose and states the signs, such as hypoglycemia, at which the fast should be ended.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This imposes the nurse's view; the decision belongs to the client, who may choose to fast although exemptions for illness exist.
- B – Stopping the medicines risks hyperglycemia; the regimen is adjusted, not abandoned.
- D – Monitoring is essential for safety while fasting and should increase, not stop.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
NCLEX-RN is a registered trademark of the National Council of State Boards of Nursing, Inc. (NCSBN). This site is not affiliated with, sponsored by or endorsed by the owner of that mark.
Nursing