1Question
A client with chronic venous insufficiency reports ankle swelling that is worse by evening and improves after a night in bed. When explaining the underlying problem, which statement should the nurse make?
- The leg arteries are delivering too much blood toward the feet.
- Every lymph channel in the groin has been removed.
- One-way valves in the leg veins no longer keep blood from pooling.
- Capillary walls have become permanently thinner and leak fluid.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. One-way valves in the leg veins no longer keep blood from pooling.
Topic: venous valves and edema
Veins carry blood back to the heart against gravity, using one-way valves and the squeeze of leg muscles. When valves fail, blood pools in dependent veins, venous pressure rises, and fluid shifts into surrounding tissue. Lying flat removes the gravity load, so swelling recedes overnight.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Arterial inflow is not the problem; the swelling comes from poor return of blood through the venous system.
- B – Nothing in the history suggests node removal; the gravity-related pattern points to venous failure.
- D – Capillary leak is not the mechanism; raised venous pressure from faulty valves is what pushes fluid into the tissue.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
2Question
A client with a strained thigh muscle is asked to straighten the knee while seated. The client completes the full range of motion against gravity but cannot hold the position when the nurse applies any resistance. Which grade should the nurse document?
- 2/5: full movement only when gravity is eliminated
- 3/5: full movement against gravity, no added resistance tolerated
- 4/5: full movement against gravity and some, but not full, resistance
- 1/5: a visible flicker of contraction without joint movement
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. 3/5: full movement against gravity, no added resistance tolerated
Topic: muscle strength grading
On the 0 to 5 scale, grade 3 is full range of motion against gravity without resistance. Grade 4 is movement against gravity plus some resistance, and grade 5 is full resistance. Grade 2 needs gravity removed.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Grade 2 means the client can move the part only if gravity is removed, for example by supporting the limb on a surface; this client lifts against gravity.
- C – Grade 4 requires the client to hold against some resistance from the examiner; this client yields to any resistance.
- D – Grade 1 is a trace contraction with no movement; this client moves through the full range.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
3Question
A client's left eye measures 20/80 on a Snellen chart, and the right eye measures 20/20. How should the nurse interpret the left-eye result?
- The client can read detail at 80 feet that a typical eye reads at 20 feet
- The left eye has retained eighty percent of normal vision
- The client read eighty of one hundred letters correctly with that eye
- At 20 feet the client sees only what a typical eye could still resolve at 80 feet
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. At 20 feet the client sees only what a typical eye could still resolve at 80 feet
Topic: reading Snellen results
The numerator is the distance of the client from the chart, and the denominator is the distance at which a typical eye can read the same line. A result of 20/80 means this eye needs to be at 20 feet to see what a typical eye sees from 80 feet, so acuity is reduced and a referral is warranted.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This reverses the fraction; the top number is the client's testing distance and the bottom number is the distance a typical eye can read that line.
- B – The fraction is not a percentage of vision retained.
- C – The fraction does not count letters; it compares the distance at which this client and a typical eye can read a line.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
4Question
The nurse prepares to obtain a rectal temperature from a 2-month-old with a fever and no obvious source. Which actions are appropriate?
Select all that apply.
- Lay the infant supine and hold the ankles up toward the abdomen with one hand
- Lubricate the end of the thermometer before insertion
- Insert only the short, marked tip length, then keep a hand on the thermometer and the infant throughout
- Leave the thermometer in place while stepping away to get the chart
- Insert the thermometer as far as it will go to be sure of a core reading
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and C.
- A – Lay the infant supine and hold the ankles up toward the abdomen with one hand
- B – Lubricate the end of the thermometer before insertion
- C – Insert only the short, marked tip length, then keep a hand on the thermometer and the infant throughout
Topic: rectal temperature in an infant
A rectal reading is the most reliable route in young infants, but it demands a safe technique. Position the infant so the buttocks are exposed and the legs are controlled, lubricate the tip, insert only the short tip length, and stay with the infant while holding the device.
Why the others are wrong
- D – A thermometer in a squirming infant can perforate the rectum or fall out; a hand must stay on both until the reading is complete.
- E – Deep insertion risks perforation and gives no added accuracy; only the short tip length is inserted.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
5Question
A client with a new stroke has a diminished gag reflex. Before allowing any oral intake, the nurse recalls that the gag reflex depends on which pair of cranial nerves?
- CN IX (glossopharyngeal) and CN X (vagus)
- CN V (trigeminal) and CN VII (facial)
- CN X (vagus) and CN XII (hypoglossal)
- CN VII (facial) and CN VIII (vestibulocochlear)
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. CN IX (glossopharyngeal) and CN X (vagus)
Topic: gag reflex pathway
Touching the back of the throat stimulates sensory fibers of the glossopharyngeal nerve, and the vagus nerve supplies the pharyngeal muscles that contract in response. A weak gag therefore points to impairment of CN IX and CN X and signals aspiration risk.
Why the others are wrong
- B – These nerves handle facial sensation, chewing, and facial movement, not the pharyngeal reflex arc.
- C – Vagus is correct for the motor side, but the hypoglossal nerve moves the tongue and does not carry the sensory limb of the gag reflex.
- D – These nerves carry facial movement, taste on the anterior tongue, hearing, and balance; they are not part of this reflex.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
6Question
A 78-year-old client with no known lung disease attends a routine visit. Room-air oxygen saturation is 95%, respirations are 16 and unlabored, and prior visits recorded 94% to 96%. What is the nurse's best action?
- Record the value and continue, since it matches the client's usual range.
- Apply oxygen by nasal cannula until the reading reaches 100%.
- Notify the provider of acute hypoxemia right away.
- Recheck the saturation every 15 minutes for an hour.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Record the value and continue, since it matches the client's usual range.
Topic: baseline oxygen saturation
Older adults may sit slightly lower within the adult range, and the individual's baseline matters more than chasing a perfect number. A client without symptoms whose reading is unchanged needs documentation, not treatment.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Oxygen is not indicated for an asymptomatic client whose reading is in the usual range; 100% is not the goal.
- C – A reading at baseline with easy breathing is not hypoxemia and does not justify an urgent call.
- D – Repeated checks add nothing when the value is plausible, stable, and consistent with the client's trend.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
7Question
A 14-month-old with fever, cough, red eyes, and a rash that began on the face and spread downward arrives at the clinic. The family returned from overseas travel last week and the child is unvaccinated. What protective equipment should the nurse use while taking vital signs?
- A fit-tested N95 respirator, with the child moved to a closed single room
- Surgical mask, gown, and gloves, with the door closed
- Gloves alone, with hand hygiene between contacts
- Standard precautions only, because the diagnosis is unconfirmed
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. A fit-tested N95 respirator, with the child moved to a closed single room
Topic: airborne precautions for fever with rash
Fever with cough, conjunctivitis, and a descending rash in an unvaccinated child who has traveled suggests measles, which is transmitted by the airborne route. Staff who are immune wear a fit-tested N95 respirator, and the child is placed in an airborne infection isolation room or, if none, a closed single room.
Why the others are wrong
- B – This is droplet and contact protection; the picture suggests measles, which spreads on airborne particles that pass around a surgical mask.
- C – Gloves alone give no respiratory protection against a pathogen carried on small airborne particles.
- D – Precautions begin on suspicion, based on the syndrome, not after laboratory confirmation.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
8Question
A nurse is reviewing pulse assessment technique with a new graduate. Which statements are correct?
Select all that apply.
- Only one carotid artery is palpated at a time to avoid reducing blood flow to the brain.
- In an adult, the apical pulse is auscultated at the fifth intercostal space along the left midclavicular line.
- The dorsalis pedis pulse lies just lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe.
- The radial pulse is located on the little-finger side of the wrist.
- Both carotid arteries should be pressed together to compare strength.
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and C.
- A – Only one carotid artery is palpated at a time to avoid reducing blood flow to the brain.
- B – In an adult, the apical pulse is auscultated at the fifth intercostal space along the left midclavicular line.
- C – The dorsalis pedis pulse lies just lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe.
Topic: pulse locations and technique
technique keeps clients safe and findings accurate. Carotids are palpated singly, the adult apex is found at the fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line, and the dorsalis pedis is just lateral to the great-toe extensor tendon.
Why the others are wrong
- D – The radial pulse lies on the thumb side of the wrist; the little-finger side overlies the ulnar artery.
- E – Pressing both carotids together can cut cerebral blood flow and trigger a vagal response; compare them one at a time.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
9Question
A client at 30 weeks of gestation has a blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg at a routine visit after hurrying in from the parking lot. Which actions are appropriate for the nurse's next steps?
Select all that apply.
- Have the client rest seated for several minutes, then repeat the reading with the arm at heart level
- Ask about headache, visual changes, and upper abdominal pain
- Compare the reading with blood pressures recorded at earlier prenatal visits
- Give a standing-order antihypertensive and send the client home
- Reassure the client that hurrying explains the reading and skip further checks
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and C.
- A – Have the client rest seated for several minutes, then repeat the reading with the arm at heart level
- B – Ask about headache, visual changes, and upper abdominal pain
- C – Compare the reading with blood pressures recorded at earlier prenatal visits
Topic: elevated blood pressure in pregnancy
A raised pressure in pregnancy may signal a hypertensive disorder, so the first steps are verification and context: a repeat after rest with correct technique, comparison with earlier values, and screening for warning symptoms. Findings then guide escalation to the provider.
Why the others are wrong
- D – Treatment is not started on a single unrepeated reading, and the nurse does not discharge a client with a possible hypertensive disorder before further evaluation.
- E – Hurrying may raise the number, but a possible hypertensive disorder of pregnancy must be ruled out by repeating the reading and screening for symptoms.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
10Question
A frightened 2-year-old sits on the caregiver's lap for a well-child visit. The nurse is planning the order of the physical assessment. Which approach will give the most reliable heart and respiratory rates?
- Start with the ear and throat examination so the frightening part is finished early.
- Separate the child from the caregiver so the child focuses on the nurse.
- Count respirations and the heart rate first while the child is calm on the caregiver's lap.
- Ask the child to lie flat and still on the table during counting.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. Count respirations and the heart rate first while the child is calm on the caregiver's lap.
Topic: assessing a toddler
In toddlers, quiet measures such as respiratory rate and heart rate are obtained first, before any intrusive step, while the child is calm and seated with the caregiver. Rates are also counted for a full minute because they vary and may be irregular.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Distressing steps come last; crying raises heart and respiratory rates and makes counts unreliable.
- B – Separation increases fear in toddlers; staying on the lap keeps the child calm.
- D – Toddlers cannot follow such directions, and forcing them to lie down provokes crying.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
11Question
Rectal temperatures are routine for young febrile infants. Which infant should NOT have a rectal temperature taken?
- A 2-month-old being evaluated for fever with no source
- A 5-month-old receiving chemotherapy with a very low neutrophil count
- A 4-month-old with mild diarrhea
- A 7-month-old with a rash on the trunk
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. A 5-month-old receiving chemotherapy with a very low neutrophil count
Topic: contraindication to rectal temperature
Rectal thermometry can injure the mucosa and introduce bacteria, which is dangerous when the neutrophil count is very low. Oral, axillary, or temporal routes are used instead for neutropenic clients, and the provider is informed of any fever.
Why the others are wrong
- A – A rectal reading is the preferred method here and nothing contraindicates it.
- C – Mild diarrhea alone is not a contraindication when careful technique is used.
- D – A rash away from the rectal area does not prevent safe measurement.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
12Question
While palpating the head and neck lymph nodes, the nurse notes four different findings in four clients. Which finding requires follow-up by the provider?
- A hard, fixed, painless node above the collarbone
- A soft, tender, mobile node under the jaw in a client with a sore throat
- Pea-sized, soft, nontender nodes in the groin
- A warm, tender node beside an infected cut on the hand
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. A hard, fixed, painless node above the collarbone
Topic: lymph node findings
Nodes that are hard, fixed to underlying tissue, and painless raise concern for malignancy, and a palpable supraclavicular node is considered abnormal until proven otherwise. Soft, mobile, tender nodes usually reflect infection nearby.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Tender, mobile nodes are expected when nearby tissue is infected.
- C – Small, soft, mobile nodes in the inguinal area are commonly found in healthy adults.
- D – A reactive node draining an infected wound is an expected response.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
13Question
A nurse is about to perform a head-to-toe physical assessment on an alert older adult admitted this morning. Which preparation steps are appropriate?
Select all that apply.
- Offer the opportunity to use the toilet
- Make sure eyeglasses and hearing aids are in place
- Perform hand hygiene and warm the stethoscope
- Begin with the most painful area so it is finished first
- Ask all visitors to stay at the bedside during the examination
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and C.
- A – Offer the opportunity to use the toilet
- B – Make sure eyeglasses and hearing aids are in place
- C – Perform hand hygiene and warm the stethoscope
Topic: preparing for physical examination
Good preparation promotes comfort, privacy, and accurate data. An empty bladder reduces abdominal discomfort, sensory aids allow the client to follow instructions, and clean, warm hands and equipment prevent infection and startle.
Why the others are wrong
- D – The most uncomfortable area is examined last, so the client stays relaxed and cooperative.
- E – Privacy is protected by asking visitors to step out unless the client wants them present.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
14Question
A parent tells the nurse, 'I'm worried about the shots my baby is due for today.' Which response best opens a respectful discussion?
- Vaccines are very safe, so there is nothing to worry about.
- Children who skip shots can get seriously ill, and you need to understand that.
- What worries you most? I would like to hear your thoughts.
- Do you know the daycare will not accept unvaccinated children?
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. What worries you most? I would like to hear your thoughts.
Topic: discussing vaccine hesitancy
An open, non-judgmental invitation lets the parent name the actual concern, which the nurse can then address with accurate information. Dismissing or pressuring the parent damages trust.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This dismisses the concern and closes the conversation.
- B – A lecture that implies blame makes parents defensive and unwilling to share concerns.
- D – This pressures the parent and does not explore the concern.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
15Question
The nurse auscultates the heart at the second intercostal space along the right sternal border. Which valve sound is best heard at this site?
- Mitral valve
- Aortic valve
- Tricuspid valve
- Pulmonic valve
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Aortic valve
Topic: valve auscultation sites
The aortic area lies at the second intercostal space at the right sternal border, where the closure of the valve between the left ventricle and the aorta is loudest. The pulmonic area is the mirror position on the left.
Why the others are wrong
- A – The mitral valve is best heard at the apex, the fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line.
- C – The tricuspid valve is heard at the lower left sternal border.
- D – The pulmonic valve is heard at the second intercostal space along the left sternal border.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
16Question
A nurse is admitting a client who recently immigrated and answers questions with brief, quiet replies. Which statement best promotes a culturally safe interaction?
- Where were you born, and how long have you lived here?
- Please tell me about any customs or beliefs that matter to you while you are in our care.
- Everyone is treated the same way here, so there is no need to worry.
- I will ask your relative to answer the questions for you.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Please tell me about any customs or beliefs that matter to you while you are in our care.
Topic: culturally safe questioning
Cultural safety is defined by how the client experiences the interaction. An open invitation lets clients name what matters to them and shares power, instead of assuming what a group believes.
Why the others are wrong
- A – These questions rely on assumptions about origin and do not invite the client to say what matters.
- C – Treating everyone identically ignores individual needs and may feel dismissive.
- D – Speaking for the client takes away voice and autonomy unless the client chooses it.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
17Question
A parent shows the nurse a recent photograph in which one of the toddler's pupils glows white instead of red. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- Explain that flash reflection commonly causes this and plan to monitor.
- Advise taking more photographs in a few weeks to see if it persists.
- Schedule vision screening for school entry.
- Arrange a prompt referral to an ophthalmologist.
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Arrange a prompt referral to an ophthalmologist.
Topic: leukocoria
A white pupillary reflex (leukocoria) in photographs or on examination can signal retinoblastoma, cataract, or other serious problems. It needs prompt specialist evaluation instead of observation.
Why the others are wrong
- A – A persistent white reflex is not a normal flash effect and can signal a serious eye disorder.
- B – Waiting delays diagnosis of possible tumor or cataract.
- C – Years of delay could cost the child sight or life.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
18Question
A nurse measures blood pressure in an older adult at a clinic and obtains an unexpectedly high reading. Which factors could have falsely raised the reading?
Select all that apply.
- The cuff bladder was too narrow for the upper arm
- The arm rested on the lap, below heart level
- The client had a full bladder
- The client was talking during the measurement
- The client rested seated with back supported for five minutes
- The arm was supported at heart level
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B, C and D.
- A – The cuff bladder was too narrow for the upper arm
- B – The arm rested on the lap, below heart level
- C – The client had a full bladder
- D – The client was talking during the measurement
Topic: causes of falsely high blood pressure
A cuff that is too small, an arm hanging below the heart, a full bladder, and talking can all push the reading up. Proper technique includes the right cuff size, a supported arm at heart level, a quiet rested client, and an empty bladder.
Why the others are wrong
- E – Resting for five minutes is the recommended preparation and does not raise the reading.
- F – Support at heart level is correct technique.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
19Question
A nurse reviews documentation after assessing a client with abdominal pain. Which entries are objective data?
Select all that apply.
- Abdomen is firm and distended with guarding on palpation
- Client states the pain is sharp and 8 out of 10
- Temperature 38.4 C
- Client says nausea has been present since breakfast
- Pulse 112 beats/min and regular
- Client reports having no appetite
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, C and E.
- A – Abdomen is firm and distended with guarding on palpation
- C – Temperature 38.4 C
- E – Pulse 112 beats/min and regular
Topic: objective vs subjective data
Objective data are observed or measured by the examiner: inspection, palpation, and measurements such as temperature and pulse. Subjective data are what the client reports, such as pain intensity, nausea, and appetite.
Why the others are wrong
- B – A pain rating is the client's own report, which is subjective.
- D – Nausea is a symptom the client reports, so it is subjective.
- F – Appetite is reported by the client and cannot be measured by the nurse, so it is subjective.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
20Question
During a health history, which client statement belongs in the biographic data section?
- Works night shifts as a delivery driver and speaks Spanish at home
- Mother was treated for breast cancer in her fifties and a maternal aunt had ovarian cancer
- Takes lisinopril every morning and an over-the-counter antacid at night
- Has had daily headaches that began two weeks ago and worsen by evening
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Works night shifts as a delivery driver and speaks Spanish at home
Topic: biographic data
Biographic data identify who the client is: name, age, occupation, language, and similar facts. The symptoms, medications, and relatives' conditions are recorded in their own sections of the health history.
Why the others are wrong
- B – Relatives' illnesses form the family history section.
- C – Current medicines are part of the health history, not biographic data.
- D – The reason for the visit and its development are recorded as the chief complaint and present illness.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
21Question
A client reports aching pain under the right ribs after eating fried foods, sometimes spreading to the right shoulder blade. In which abdominal quadrant is the organ most likely involved located?
- Left upper quadrant
- Right upper quadrant
- Right lower quadrant
- Left lower quadrant
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: B. Right upper quadrant
Topic: abdominal quadrants
Pain after fatty meals, felt under the right ribs and radiating to the right scapula, is typical of gallbladder disease, and the gallbladder lies beneath the liver in the right upper quadrant.
Why the others are wrong
- A – This quadrant holds the spleen and most of the stomach.
- C – This quadrant holds the appendix and cecum.
- D – This quadrant holds the sigmoid colon.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
22Question
The nurse prepares to auscultate the posterior lung fields of a stable client who is able to sit. Which position and instruction are best?
- Supine with the arms resting at the sides and the head of the bed flat
- Side-lying on one side with the knees drawn up toward the abdomen
- Prone with the head turned to one side and a pillow under the abdomen
- Sitting upright, leaning slightly forward with arms folded across the chest
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: D. Sitting upright, leaning slightly forward with arms folded across the chest
Topic: positioning for posterior chest exam
An upright posture allows full expansion of the lungs, and folding the arms across the chest moves the shoulder blades away from the lung fields so the stethoscope can reach them.
Why the others are wrong
- A – The back cannot be reached in this position.
- B – Only one side of the back is accessible, and the client's weight compresses the dependent lung.
- C – Prone positioning is uncomfortable and unnecessary for a client who can sit.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
23Question
A nurse reviews cranial nerve functions with a student. Which pairings are correct?
Select all that apply.
- CN VI (abducens): moves the eye outward, toward the temple
- CN XI (spinal accessory): shrugs the shoulders and turns the head
- CN VIII (vestibulocochlear): hearing and equilibrium
- CN XII (hypoglossal): raises the soft palate
- CN VII (facial): hearing
Show the answers and explanation
Answers: A, B and C.
- A – CN VI (abducens): moves the eye outward, toward the temple
- B – CN XI (spinal accessory): shrugs the shoulders and turns the head
- C – CN VIII (vestibulocochlear): hearing and equilibrium
Topic: cranial nerve functions
CN VI controls lateral eye movement, CN XI supplies the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid, and CN VIII carries hearing and balance. The hypoglossal nerve moves the tongue, and the facial nerve controls facial expression.
Why the others are wrong
- D – The hypoglossal nerve moves the tongue; palate elevation is a function of the vagus nerve.
- E – The facial nerve moves the facial muscles and carries taste from the front of the tongue; hearing is carried by CN VIII.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
24Question
A client's pre-pregnancy blood pressure was 112/70 mm Hg and her pulse 70 beats/min. Which finding at a prenatal visit most needs follow-up?
- 108/60 mm Hg with a pulse of 82 at 20 weeks
- 104/58 mm Hg with a pulse of 88 at 26 weeks
- 150/98 mm Hg with a pulse of 96 and a new headache at 34 weeks
- 114/72 mm Hg with a pulse of 90 at 38 weeks
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: C. 150/98 mm Hg with a pulse of 96 and a new headache at 34 weeks
Topic: vital signs in pregnancy
Blood pressure in pregnancy typically falls in the first half and returns toward baseline later, while the pulse rises moderately. A reading of 140/90 mm Hg or higher after 20 weeks, especially with a new headache, suggests a hypertensive disorder such as preeclampsia and requires prompt evaluation.
Why the others are wrong
- A – Pressure often dips in mid-pregnancy and the pulse rises modestly; this is expected.
- B – The lowest pressures are common in the second trimester, and the pulse can rise by about 10 to 20 beats.
- D – Pressure returning near the pre-pregnancy value and a raised pulse are expected in late pregnancy.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
25Question
While completing admission paperwork, a nurse wants to ask about the client's home situation in a way that avoids assumptions about family structure. Which question is most inclusive?
- Who are the people important to you, and how involved would you like them to be?
- Will your husband or wife be helping you after discharge at home?
- Do you live with your mother and father or in a household of your own?
- Are you single, married, or divorced at the present time?
Show the answer and explanation
Answer: A. Who are the people important to you, and how involved would you like them to be?
Topic: inclusive questioning
Open questions that let clients name their own supports respect diverse families and avoid assumptions about marriage, gender, or household makeup.
Why the others are wrong
- B – This assumes the client is married to a partner of the opposite sex.
- C – This assumes particular family members and a limited set of living arrangements.
- D – The fixed categories leave out many relationships and do not ask who supports the client.
Written for the Medical Exam YouTube channel and answered blind by a second AI model before publication.
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